UPSC IAS Prelims 2023 Detailed Answer Key - Civils360

1. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka which flourished as a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghikas, located?

(a) Andhra

(b) Gandhara

(d) Magadha

Answer – A

Dharanikota is a town near Amaravati in the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh in India, It is the site of the ancient Dhanyakataka which was the capital of the Satavahana kingdom which ruled in the Deccan around the 1st to 3rd centuries A.D.

2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements :

The concept of stupa in Buddhist origin.
Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhisist tradition tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a. Only one

b. Only two

c. All three

d. None

Answer B

Types of stupas
Built for a variety of reasons, Buddhist stupas are classified based on form and function into five types:[49]
Relic stupa, in which the relics or remains of the Buddha, his disciples, and lay saints are interred.
Object stupa, in which the items interred are objects belonged to the Buddha or his disciples, such as a begging bowl or robe, or important Buddhist scriptures.
Commemorative stupa, built to commemorate events in the lives of Buddha or his disciples.
Symbolic stupa, to symbolise aspects of Buddhist theology; for example, Borobudur is considered to be the symbol of “the Three Worlds (dhatu) and the spiritual stages (bhumi) in a Mahayana bodhisattva’s character.”[49]
Votive stupa, constructed to commemorate visits or to gain spiritual benefits, usually at the site of prominent stupas which are regularly visited.
Stupas may have originated as pre-Buddhist tumuli in which śramaṇas were buried in a seated position called chaitya.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Stupa

3. With reference to ancient South India, korkhai, poompuhar were well known as

(a) capital cities
(b) Ports
(c) Centres of iron-and-steel making
(d) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Answer- B

Map showing Korkhai, Poopuhar as the Ancient ports of south indis

TN SCERT – 6th class

4. Which one of the following explains the practice of Vattakirutal mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards
(b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and
philosophical matters
(c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and
animals
(d) A king‘ defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to
death

Answer D

Vatakkiruttal (Tamil: வடக்கிருத்தல், Vaṭakkiruttal, ‘fasting facing north’), also Vadakiruthal and vatakiruttal, was a Tamil ritual of fasting till death. It was especially widespread during the Sangam age. The Tamil kings, in order to save their honour, and prestige, were prepared to meet their death facing North (‘Vatakkiruttal’) and never would they turn their back in battle. It was a Tamil martial (Tamil: நோன்பு, nōnpu, ‘vow’). This was either done alone, or as a group with the supporters of the captured king.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vatakkiruttal

5. Consider the following dynasties :

Hoysala,
Gahadavala.
Kakatiya
Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early

eighth century AD?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

Answer D

Yadava dynasty, rulers of a 12th–14th-century Hindu kingdom of central India in what is now the Indian state of Maharashtra.
The Kakatiya dynasty (IAST: Kākatīya) was a Telugu dynasty that ruled most of eastern Deccan region in present-day India between 12th and 14th centuries.
he Gahadavala dynasty (IAST: Gāhaḍavālas) also Gahadavalas of Kannauj was a Rajput dynasty ^[2]^[3] that ruled parts of the present-day Indian states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, during 11th and 12th centuries.
The Hoysala Empire was a Kannadiga power originating from the Indian subcontinent that ruled most of what is now Karnataka between the 10th and the 14th centuries. The capital of the Hoysalas was initially located at Belur, but was later moved to Halebidu.

6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs :

Literary work Author

Devichandragupta : Bilhana
Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
Milinda-panh linda-panha : Nagarjuna,
Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer B

Hammira Mahakavya (IAST: Hammīra-Mahākāvya) is a 15th-century Indian Sanskrit epic poem written by the Jain scholar Nayachandra Suri.
Devi-Chandraguptam (IAST: Devīcandraguptam) or Devi-Chandragupta is an Indian Sanskrit-language political drama attributed to Vishakhadeva, who is generally identified with Vishakhadatta. The complete text of the play is now lost, but its portions survive in form of quotations in the later works. The plot also survives in form of a Persian language story, which appears to be an adaptation of the play, and is included in the 11th century text Majmal-ut-Tawarikh.
he Milinda Panho is a Buddhist text which dates from sometime between 100 BC and 200 CE. It records a dialogue between the Buddhist sage Nāgasena, and the Indo-Greek king Menander.
Nītivākyāmṛta (नीतिवाक्यामृत) is the name of a text dealing with ethics and ethical values (nītiśāstra), attributed to Somadeva .

7. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many of natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.”

The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Shaivism
(d) Vaishnavism

Answer B

Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of entities such as stones, rocks, running water, and many other natural objects not looked upon as living by other sects.

8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra river and a canalcum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

(a) Devaraya 1

(b) Mallikarjuna

(d) Virupaksha

Answer A

In c.1410 Devaraya I had a barrage constructed across the Tungabhadra river and commissioned a 24 km long aqueduct from the Tungabhadra river to the capital

9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese ?

(a) Ahmad Shah
(b) Mahmud Begarha
(c) Bahadur Shah
(d) Muhammad Shah

Answer: C

Early in the 16th century, the Sultan of Gujarat, Bahadur Shah, came under immense pressure when his kingdom was invaded by the second Mughal Emperor Humayun.
At that juncture, he decided to remain on conciliatory terms with the Portuguese, who had arrived in India at the end of the 15th century, and were at the time an energetic and ambitious maritime power.
In 1534, the Shah signed the Treaty of Bassein with the Portuguese, ceding Diu to the latter, as well as other territories of his empire such as Vasai and the islands that today form Mumbai. The Portuguese obtained Daman from the Shah in 1559.

10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India of India?

(a) The Regulating Act
(b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793
(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer D

11. In essence, what does’ Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law

Answer C

12. Consider the following statements :

Statement-1 :

In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons,

Statement-II :

In India, prisons a governed by the prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept ‘the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-1I are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: B

Prisons became state subject because it is mentioned under the seventh schedule

13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the

‘Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer C

14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 86th Amendment

Answer A

First amendment added Ninth Schedule which tried to control the powers of judiciary

15. Consider the following organizations/bodies in India :

The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer DisputesRedressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies? .

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer A

Article 338 B NCBC 103rd Constitutional amendment Act
All others are statutory bodies

16. Consider the following statements :

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid
Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place,
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer D

17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian parliament, consider the following statements :

When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill,
When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a Joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

In the case of disagreement between Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a Joint sitting is necessary for Finance Bill as it is governed with the same provisions of ordinary bill.

18. Consider the following statements :

Once the central Government notifies an area as a community reserve::

The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest.
hunting is not allowed in such area
people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce,
people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer B

Once the Centre notifies an area as a community reserve, as per Section 33 of the WLPA Act, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state becomes the governing authority of the forest, whose consent is required for all decisions pertaining to the area.
After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people are not allowed to hunt there, or collect non-timber forest produce, or use it for agricultural practices such as jhum cultivation.

19. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

The notification of an area as scheduled areas takes place through the presidential order
The largest administrative unit forming the scheduled areas has been the district and the lowest the cluster of villages in the block. Most of the districts form scheduled areas only partially.
The governors are required to submit annual reports to the President on the administration of scheduled areas in the state, and the President is also required to give direction to the state in regard to the administration.

20. Consider the following statements :

Statement-l :

The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement-II :

Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-ll is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect .
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-Il is correct

Answer C

The Court has held in several judgments — Indra Sawhney v Union of India 1993; M Nagaraj v Union of India 2006 — that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4)¹ of the Constitution would be limited by Article 335,² which provides for “maintenance of efficiency of administration,”
Efficiency is not defined
https://theprint.in/opinion/article-164-stands-on-its-own-constitution-made-no-room-for-merit-that-courts-invoke/669215/

21. Consider the following statements

statement I

India despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production Statement-II :

Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-II
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-11 is correct

Answer C

Most reactors are light water reactors (of two types – PWR and BWR) and require uranium to be enriched from 0.7% to 3-5% U-235 in their fuel.

22. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II : Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer C

https://www.britannica.com/animal/marsupial

23. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: A

The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global network of scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organized under the auspices of the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

24. Consider the following fauna:

Lion-tailed Macaque
Malabar Civet
Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Sambar are nocturnal or crepuscular. The males live alone for much of the year, and the females live in small herds of up to 16 individuals.
The Malabar civet is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little is known about its biology and ecology apart from habitat use.
The lion-tailed macaque is a rainforest dweller, often being found in the upper canopy of tropical moist evergreen forests or monsoon forests. It is diurnal, meaning it is active exclusively in daylight hours.

25. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies
(b) Dragonflies
(c) Honey Bees
(d) Wasps

Answer C

26. Consider the following statements :

Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.
Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
Some mushrooms have biolumi- nescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer D

27. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :

They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C*

The squirrel is an omnivore. This means it will eat just about anything though it prefers fruit and nuts. In India, palm squirrels prefer crops such as nuts, sugarcane, grapes, mangoes, and apples.

28. Consider the following statements:

Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

29. Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear

Answer B

Orangutans were first observed using tools in the wild in 1994 in the northwest corner of Sumatra. As with the chimpanzees, orangutans use tools made from branches and leaves to scratch, scrape, wipe, sponge, swat, fan, hook, probe, scoop, pry, chisel, hammer, cover, cushion and amplify.

30. Consider the following:

Aerosols
Foam agents
Fire retardants
Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer D

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are greenhouse gases (GHGs) commonly used by federal agencies in a wide variety of applications, including refrigeration, air-conditioning (AC), building insulation, fire extinguishing systems, and aerosols

31. Consider the following statements:

Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer A or B*

Kanwar is a residual oxbow lake, formed due to meandering of Burhi Gandak river, a tributary of Ganga, in the geological past. The Burhi (“Old”) Gandak flows parallel to and east of the Gandak River in an old channel.
The Jhelum river meanders northwestward from the northern slope of the Pir Panjal Range through the Vale of Kashmir to Wular Lake at Srinagar, which controls its flow. Emerging from the lake, the Jhelum flows westward and crosses the Pir Panjal in a gorge some 7,000 feet (2,100 metres) deep with almost perpendicular sides.
The Kolleru lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammileru streams,

32. Consider the following pairs :

Port – Well known as

Kamarajar Port : First major port in India registered as a company
Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
Visakhapatnam Port : Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs

Answer: B

Mundra Port is India’s first private port and largest container port, located on the northern shores of the Gulf of Kutch near Mundra, Kutch district, Gujarat.
The 12th major port of India, Kamarajar port and the first port in India which is a public company. The port was declared as a major port under the Indian Ports Act, 1908 in March 1999 and incorporated as Ennore Port Limited under the Companies Act, 1956 in October 1999. The Kamarajar Port is the only corporatized major port and is registered as a company

33. Consider the following trees:

Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
Mahua (Madhuca indica)
Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer B

34. Consider the following statements :

India has more arable areas than China.
The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer B

India and China are the most populous countries in the world, having a population size of 1.35 billion and 1.39 billion, respectively, in 2018. With limited arable land (about 120 million hectare (m ha) in China, and 156 m ha in India), both face the challenge of producing enough food, fodder, and fibre for their population. Both have adopted modern technologies in agriculture, starting with High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds in the mid-1960s, increased irrigation cover, and use of more chemical fertilisers to get more food from this limited land. China’s irrigation cover is 41% of cultivated area, and India’s is 48%. As a result of this irrigation, China’s total sown area is 166 m ha compared to India’s gross cropped area of 198 m ha. Even with much lesser land under cultivation, China produces agricultural output valued at $1,367 billion—more than three times that of India’s $407 billion. How has China made this possible? Can there be a lesson for India? We think there are three important lessons for India, if it is to catch up to the levels achieved in China.

35. Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
(c) Naupada Swamp
(d) Rann of Kutch

Answer D

The area was a vast shallow of the Arabian Sea until continuing geological uplift closed off the connection with the sea, creating a vast lake that was still navigable during the time of Alexander the Great.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Great_Rann_of_Kutch

36. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Titanium

Answer D

Ilmenite (FeO. TiO2) and rutile (TiO2) are the two chief minerals of titanium. Titanium dioxide occurs in polymorphic forms as rutile, anatase (octahedrite) and brookite.

37. About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

(a) Argentina
(b) Botswana
(c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
(d) Kazakhstan

Answer C

Nearly 3/4 of the world’s cobalt comes from the Congo. DRC will produce 100,000 tonnes – 71% of the world’s cobalt – in 2020, research house CRU estimates.

38. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon
(b) Nigeria
(c) South Sudan
(d) Uganda

Answer A

The Congo Basin spans across six countries—Cameroon, Central African Republic, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.

39. Consider the following statements:

Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer:D

Amarkandak: Vindhya and Satpura
Seshachalam is in Eastern Ghats
Biligiriranga is a hill range situated in south-western Karnataka, at its border with Tamil Nadu (Erode District) in South India.

40. With reference to India’s projects on connectivity, consider the following statements:

East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
Bangladesh China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer D

East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Silchar and Porbandhert.
The BCIM economic corridor aims to connect Kolkata with Kunming, capital of the Yunnan province.
India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway (IMT Highway),[1] 1,360 km (850 mi) long route, is a highway under upgrade under India’s Look East policy that will connect Moreh, India with Mae Sot, Thailand via Myanmar

41. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I:

Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement-II:

InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Recon- struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: D

The dividend and Interest income from InvITs is completely taxable as per the slab rate of the investor.
With InvITs and REITs now recognised as borrowers under the SARFAESI Act, lenders to these trusts, shall have adequate statutory enforcement options, absence of which was earlier becoming a constraint for bankers to lend directly at trust level.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/finance/over-3-5-lakh-crore-worth-asset-monetisation-through-reits-invits-likely-in-one-year-report/articleshow/83397251.cms?from=mdr

42. Statement-I :

In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.

Statement-II:

Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer A

43. Statement-I :

Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement-II:

Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer C

Carbon Markets transfers resources from developed to Least developed countries

44. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?

(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
(b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems
(c) Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial Institutions

Answer A

Sterilization usually takes the form of an open market operation, in which a central bank sells or purchases government bonds on an open market in the amount it purchases or sells foreign currency on the foreign exchange market, so that the amount of domestic currency in circulation remains unchanged.

45. Consider the following markets:

Government Bond Market
Call Money Market
Treasury Bill Market
Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer B

Both government bonds and stock market are part of capital market

46. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to
war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and
share the produce
(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and
synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate
body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which
the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a
number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural
commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and
commercial production

Answer B

Small Farmers Large Field (SFLF): a synchronized collective action model for improving the livelihood of small farmers in India
This model is participatory and flexible and allows small farmers to benefit from achieving economies of scale by organizing themselves into groups and synchronizing and harmonizing selected operations. It was piloted in two villages of Odisha, an eastern Indian state, with 112 farmers (35 females and 77 males). These farmers organized themselves into groups and synchronized their operations such as nursery bed management, transplanting, and harvesting collectively to achieve economies of scale.

47. Consider the following statements :

The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: C

One of the 14 kharif crops for which the Centre releases a minimum support price (MSP) every year is an unlikely plant called niger or ramtil (Guizotia abyssinica). This lesser known oilseed commands one of the highest MSPs, fixed on the basis of the cost of production and market demand.

48. Consider the investments in the following assets:

Brand recognition
Inventory
Intellectual property
Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer C

Inventory is tangible asset
Intellectual property is an umbrella term for a set of intangible assets or assets that are not physical in nature.

49. Consider the following:

Demographic performance
Forest and ecology
Governance reforms
Stable government
Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria. other than population area and income distance?

of the above as criteria. other than population area and income distance?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Answer B

On Horizontal Devolution: The criteria and the weights assigned for horizontal devolution are:
Population – 15%
Area – 15%
Forest & Ecology – 10%
Income Distance – 45%
Tax and Fiscal Efforts – 2.5%
Demographic Performace – 12.5%

50. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

Affordable housing
Mass rapid transport
Health care
Renewable energy

On how many of the above does. UNOPS Sustainable investments in infrastructure and innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments ?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Answer – C

UNOPS S3i Initiative. Priority Areas of S3i Initiative of UNOPS

51. With reference to Home Guards, Consider the following statements

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security,
To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Home Guards’ is a voluntary force, first raised in India in December 1946, to assist the police in controlling civil disturbance and communal riots.
he role of Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary Force to the Police in maintenance of internal security situations, help the community in any kind of emergency such as an air-raid, fire, cyclone, earthquake, epidemic etc.,
In border States, Border Wing Home Guards (BWHG) Bns. have been raised, which serve as an auxiliary to the Border Security Force.
https://dgfscdhg.gov.in/about-homeguard

52. With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

Action The Act under which it is covered :

Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms The Official Secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms OSA 1923, Section 6
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties, Section 7 OSA,1923
Celebratory gunfire refers to use of firearms in public gatherings, religious places, marriages or other functions to fire ammunition. Added under the amendment of 2019 in Arms Act

53. Consider the following pairs

Regions often mentioned in news

North Kivu and Ituri : Reason for being in news War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique
Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: D

North Kivu and Ituri: Congo
Nagorno-Karabakh Armenia: Nagorno-Karabakh, also referred to as Artsakh by Armenians, is a landlocked region in the South Caucasus
Russian annexation of Donetsk, Kherson, Luhansk and Zaporizhzhia oblasts Ukraine

54. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I : Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.

Statement-II : The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-I1 are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: C

Statement 2 is incorrect: as israel did not sign the deal
Statement 1 is correct: Israel maintains full diplomatic relations with two of its Arab neighbours, Egypt and Jordan, after signing peace treaties in 1979 and 1994 respectively.

55. Consider the following Pairs with regard the sports awards

Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: For the most spectacular and outstanding per-formance by a sportsperson over period of last four Years
Arjuna Award : For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams
Rashtriya Khel protsahan puraskar: To recognize the contribution made .by sportspersons even after retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: B

Statement 1 is correct: Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: “spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years” at international level.
Arjuna Award: honoured for their “good performance in the field of sports over a period of four years” at the international level Statement is incorrect
Dronacharya Award : To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams Statement is Correct
Rashtriya Khel protsahan puraskar for organisations Statement is incorrect

56. Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad,2022 : B

It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in lndia
The official mascot was named Thambi’”
The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: B

This was the first Chess Olympiad to take place in India.
The official mascot was named “Thambi” (transl. younger brother), a chess knight wearing a vēṭṭi (the ethnic Tamil male attire) and a white shirt
The trophy for the winning women’s team is known as the Vera Menchik Cup in honor of the first Women’s World Chess Champion.
The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup

57. Consider the following pairs :

Area of conflict Country where mentioned in news it is located

Donbas Syria
Kachin Ethiopia
Tigray North Yemen,

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer D

Donbas – ukrain
Kachin – Myanmar
Tigray — Ethiopia

58. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
(c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
(d) Successful coups

Answer D

59. Consider the following heavy industries :

Fertilizer plants
Oil refineries
Steel plants

Green Hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer C

https://www.livemint.com/industry/energy/five-indian-companies-leading-the-green-hydrogen-revolution-11636369476063.html

60. Consider the following statements about G-20 :

The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.
Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities, –

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:C

The G20 was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues.

61. With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H Longhurst Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were aisociated with

(a) archaeological excavations
(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India
(c) establishment of Churches in Princely States
(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Answer – A

Alexander Rea, A. H Longhurst Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

62. Consider the following pairs : Site Well known for

Besnagar : Shaivite cave
Bhaja: Buddhist Cave shrine
Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine L

How many of the above pairs are

correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Bhaja Caves – Buddhist Architectures. Bhaja Caves are the best example of Buddhist cave architecture in India. They are located on a hill village Bhaja in Pune district near Lonavala, Mumbai.
Sittanavasal is a small hamlet in Pudukkottai district of Tamil Nadu, India. It is known for the Sittanavasal Cave, a 2nd-century Jain cave complex
The archaeological excavations in the 1910s in the area of the nearby Heliodorus pillar yielded unexpected results, such as the inscription of Heliodorus, which confirmed that Vāsudeva and Bhagavatism (early forms of Vaishnavism) were influential by the 2nd century BCE, and which linked the Udayagiri-Besnagar-Vidisha region politically and religiously to the ancient Indo-Greek capital of Taxila.^[32]

63. Consider the following statements :

Statement-1 :

7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.

Statement-II :

It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer A

August 7 was chosen as the National Handloom Day to commemorate the Swadeshi Movement which was launched on this day in 1905 in Calcutta Town Hall to protest against the partition of Bengal by the British Government.

64. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :

Statement-I :

One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600mm x 400mm

Statement-II

The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer B

65. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :

Statement-I :

The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote

constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II :

On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of

India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer C

66. Consider the following statements :

Statement-I :

Switzerland is the largest exporter of Gold in value.

Statement-II :

Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer C

In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.7B in Gold. The main destinations of Switzerland exports on Gold were India ($29.3B), China ($16B), United States ($8.13B), Germany ($5.8B), and Hong Kong ($4.67B).

Gold reserves across the world. Switzerland doesnot has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

67. Consider the following statements :

Statement-1 :

Recently, the United States of America USA and the European Union (EU) ave launched the Trade and Technology Council’.

Statement-II :

The USA and the EU claim that through this, they are trying to bring technolq ic rogress and physical productivity under_their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-1l is

not the correct explanation for Statement 1

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but

Answer C

United States of America USA and the European Union (EU) ave launched the Trade and Technology Council'.

68. Consider the following statements :

Statement-1 :

India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. –

Statement-II :

Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Answer D

As per the WTO data released in 2022, India’s share in global exports for merchandise was 1.9 % and in global imports was 4.1 %. India’s share in global exports was 3.5 % and imports was 3.2 %.

69. Consider the following statements:

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

Limits the levels of budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union.
Makes the countries of the European Union share their infrastructure facilities.
Enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: A

The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set of fiscal rules designed to prevent countries in the EU from spending beyond their means. A state’s budget deficit cannot exceed 3% of GDP and national debt cannot surpass 60% of GDP. Failure to abide by the rules can lead to a maximum fine of 0.5% of GDP.

70. Consider the following statements:

Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: A

Statement 1 is incorrect
Statement 2 is incorrect: It is non binding
Statement 3 is correct: It mentions about internally displaced people

71. Consider the following countries:

Bulgaria
Czech Republic
Hungary
Latvia
Lithuania
Romania

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border the Ukraine?

(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) All four
(d)Only five

Answer: A

countries share a land border the Ukraine UPSC Question
Bulgaria

Czech Republic

Hungary

Latvia

Lithuania

Romania

72. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times
of that received at the poles.
(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
(c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapor that is concentrated in the
lower atmosphere.
(d) Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of
solar radiation.

Answer: C

Infrared waves, specifically in the form of longwave radiation, are absorbed by certain greenhouse gases, including water vapor, in the lower atmosphere. Water vapor is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the Earth’s atmosphere, and it has strong absorption properties in the infrared portion of the electromagnetic spectrum. As infrared radiation passes through the atmosphere, water vapor molecules can absorb and re-emit a significant portion of the longwave radiation. This process contributes to the greenhouse effect, where certain gases trap heat in the atmosphere, leading to an overall increase in global temperatures.

73. Consider the following statements:

Statements-I:

The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.

Statements-II:

The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer D

74. Consider the following statements:

Statements-I:

The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.

Statements-II:

The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer D

75. Consider the following statements:

In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer C

PWaves are Primary Waves So comes first
In P waves (primary waves or compressional waves), the individual particles vibrate back and forth in the same direction as the wave propagation.
Unlike P waves, which cause particles to compress and expand parallel to the wave’s direction,

76. With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:

None of them uses seawater.
None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
None of them is privately owned.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer D

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/pollution/it-is-imperative-to-improve-water-efficiency-in-india-s-coal-fired-thermal-power-plants-89484

77. “Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
(b) Converting crop residues into packing material
(c) Producing biodegradable plastics
(d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass

Answer A

Wolbachia are extremely common bacteria that occur naturally in 50 per cent of insect species, including some mosquitoes, fruit flies, moths, dragonflies and butterflies.
The World Mosquito Program’s innovative Wolbachia method is helping communities around the world prevent the spread of mosquito-borne disease.

78. Consider the following activities:

Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer -C

Spreading rock dust on farmland could suck billions of tonnes of carbon dioxide from the air every year, according to the first detailed global analysis of the technique.
The chemical reactions that degrade the rock particles lock the greenhouse gas into carbonates within months, and some scientists say this approach may be the best near-term way of removing CO2 from the atmosphere.
When you add lime to seawater, it reacts with that acid and neutralizes it, forming a carbonate ion. The effect is a boost in alkalinity to the ocean, and greater ocean alkalinity means more CO2 can be absorbed. The boost in alkalinity also reduces the amount of CO2 released by an overwhelmed ocean.

79. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
(c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from
land surfaces and water bodies

Answer: A

Genome-centric metagenomics is a field occupied with the retrieval of genomes from samples containing a mixture of microbes, such as soil, wastewater, or the gastrointestinal system. Typically, the overall aim is to study the structure and function of the microbes, often in the dynamic context of their natural environments or by their association with a host (microbiomics).

80. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues
(c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a
population

Answer: A

Based on microsatellite DNA analysis of females, their offspring, and their male partners, some females produce offspring fathered by a second male, a finding not surprising considering the occasional extra-pair associations.

81. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
Its objective is reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer C

JSY under National Rural Health Mission
JSY is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) being implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women.
JananiSurakshaYojana (JSY), a demand promotion and conditional cash transfer scheme for promoting institutional delivery.
Infant upto one year is now covered under janani suraksha karyakram

82. Consider the following statements in the context of intervention being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child birth.
It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: C

People commonly take prophylactic calcium by mouth for the treatment and prevention of low calcium levels, muscle cramps, osteoporosis, softening of the bones, and PMS. Not for Anemia, For anemia, prophylactic iron and folic acid is used

83. Consider the following statements:

Carbon fibers are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
Carbon fibers once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

84. Consider the following action:

Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously.
Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off the hard drive.
Detection of the tilt of the smart-phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.

In how many of the above actions is the function of the accelerometer required?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: C

If the laptop were to suddenly drop while in use, the accelerometer would detect the sudden free fall and immediately turn off the hard drive to avoid hitting the reading heads into the hard drive platter.
The gyroscope and accelerator sensor detects the orientation of your phone. You can use it while waiting 360° videos. The orientation will change whenever you move your mobile even a little bit.

85. Which reference to the role of biofilter in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statement

Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste in nitrate.
Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer B

86. Consider the following pairs:

Object in space Description+

Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically
Pulsars: Neutron stars that, are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer D

A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space.
Cepheidsare stars which brigthen and dim periodically.
A neutron starforms when the core of a massive star runs out of fuel and collapses. Pulsars are rotating neutron stars observed to have pulses of radiation at very regular intervals that typically range from milliseconds to seconds.

87. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) Israel
(d) Japan

Answer: D

Option (d) is correct: Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS)is a regional GNSS owned by the Government of Japan

88. Consider the following statements:

Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powred only in the initial phase of flight.
Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahmMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer D

89. Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution:

Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution
There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer:C

Gold mining is the largest source of Mercury pollution in the world.
Mercury is a highly toxic element; there is no known safe level of exposure.
Mercury emitted from the smokestacks of coal-fired power plants can fall from the atmosphere with rain, mist or chemical reactions.

90. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: C

Hydrogen can also serve as fuel for internal combustion engines. However, unlike FCEVs, these produce tailpipe emissions and are less efficient.
Hydrogen blends of up to 5 percent in the natural gas stream are generally safe.
Cars that run on this clean energy have a hydrogen tank that connects to the fuel cell, where the electricity that powers the engine is generated

91. Consider the following statements with reference to India:

According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1909926

92. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.

With of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Alternatives to SWIFT and the U.S. dollar are coming from two directions: cryptocurrencies and central bank digital currencies
Currently, access to digital central bank money is limited to central bank operating hours, traditionally less than 24 hours a day and usually five days a week.8 CBDCs could be available 24 hours a day and seven days a week or only during certain specified times (such as the operating hours of largevalue payment systems).

93. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to

(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different
platforms
(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
(c) a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the
overall stock market

Answer D

Alpha, Beta and Gamma Decays in stock Markets

94. Consider the following statements:

The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: B

Statement 1 is about SBLP. SBI is not the initiator of the SHG’s. SBLP was implemented after the success of SHGs

95. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I:

India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II:

Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: B

Statement II is not the explanation of Statement I

96. Statement-I:

According to the United Nations’ ‘World Water Development Report, 2022’, India extracts more than quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement-II:

India needs to extract more than a quarter of the World’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer C

s. India, as the largest groundwater user globally, at an estimated 251 km³ per year abstracted, uses 89% of its groundwater abstraction for irrigation.

97. Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Answer: A

Article 355: According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police can be used as evidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Not in constitution

98. Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

(a) Angola
(b) Costa Rica
(c) Ecuador
(d) Somalia

Answer: D

99. Consider the following statements:

In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Biodiversity Management Committees (BMC) are created as per the Biological Diversity Act 2002 for promoting conservation, sustainable use, and documentation of biological diversity.
The BMC shall also maintain a Register giving information about the details of the access to biological resources and traditional knowledge granted, details of the collection fee imposed and details of the benefits derived and the mode of their sharing from area within its jurisdiction
https://sbb.haryanaforest.gov.in/project/biodiversity-management-committee-bmc/

100. Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer A