UPSC Prelims Mock Test 1 – Indian Polity

12. ‘Asia Reassurance Initiative Act ’, seen in the news in the context of affairs of which of the following?

(a) China
(b) NATO
(c) USA
(d) European Union

13. Consider the following statements about National Emergency:
1. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament within one month.
2. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the LokSabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Consider the following statements about ‘Swastha Nagrik Abhiyan’.
1. It aims to create awareness on health issues and influence the health seeking behavior of citizens to encourage healthy lifestyles.
2. It is an important component of Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

15.Fundamental Duties were added in 1976. Which among these are Fundamental Duties?
1. to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest
2. to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country
3. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

16. Consider the following pairs Places in news Country
Mannar – Sri Lanka
Manbij –  Iraq
Maidan Wardak –  Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

17. Fundamental Rights are included under the basic structure doctrine laid down by the judiciary of India. This implies that:
1. It cannot be amended by the Parliament in any case without prior permission of the judiciary.
2. Citizens can exercise fundamental rights against the State without any limits.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18. Consider the following statements about ‘Fundamental Duties’:
1. They are not enforceable by Law, hence Parliament can’t provide for the imposition of appropriate penalty or punishment for failure to fulfil any of them.
2. They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a Law.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these

19. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

20.Fundamental Duties were added on the recommendation of which committee?
(a) Swaran Singh Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee
(c) Urjit Patel Committee
(d) Nayar Committee

21. ‘Climate Change Performance Index’ (CCPI) is released by which of the following?
(a) UNFCCC Secretariat
(b) The European Environmental Bureau
(c) Greenpeace international
(d) GermanWatch

22. With reference to the state reorganisation, consider the following statements:
1. A bill for reorganisation of the state can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
2. President recommends the bill only after obtaining permission from the concerned state.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. The ‘Pahchan’ initiative launched by the Government of India is
(a) To provide skill based training for rural youth
(b) To generate self-employment opportunities for women through the establishment of micro-enterprises
(c) To organize and standardize the Indian handicrafts industries (d) To rescue, identify and rehabilitate the street and runaway children

24. Fundamental Rights most appropriately establishes:
(a) Privileges enjoyed by some citizens over others
(b) Rule of law
(c) Limited government
(d) Judicial review

25. Consider the following statements regarding the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act:
1. A person can be declared as FEO, if an arrest warrant has been issued against the individual and the value of offences exceeds Rs. 100 crore.
2. Only the special court can declare a person fugitive economic offender.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

26. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has:
(a) Both real and nominal executives. (b) A system of collective responsibility.
(c) Bicameral legislature.
(d) The Parliamentary sovereignty.

27.The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by:
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both the Houses of Parliament (d) Supreme Court of India

28. Consider the following statements:
1. A territory of India cannot be ceded to another foreign country. 2. Settlement of boundary disputes between India and another country does not require constitutional amendment.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

29. Which of the following Directive Principles is/are added into the Constitution through Amendment?
1. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife.
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor. 3. To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

30. Consider the following statements about the ‘DNA Technology Regulation Bill, 2019’:
1. The primary purpose of the bill is to regulate the use and application of DNA technology, for establishing the identity of missing persons, victims, offenders, under trials and unknown deceased persons.
2. The bill provides for the establishment of National and Regional DNA Data Banks that stores the DNA information of the entire population.
3. The Bill will strengthen the criminal justice delivery system by enabling the application of DNA evidence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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31.Consider the following statement.
1. An Amendment Bill can be introduced by a private member of the legislature or a minister.
2. An amendment Bill can be introduced only in the parliament.
3. An Amendment Bill after being passed duly and sent to the President, it shall assent by the president.
4. An Amendment Bill can be initiated by state legislative assembly under special circumstances.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above

32. Consider the following statements:
1. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act removed the right to property as a fundamental right.
2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act added the directive principle relating to secure all its citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. Which one among the following is the basis of difference between the Parliamentary and Presidential system of government?
(a) Power of judicial review
(b) Method of election of President/Head of the state.
(c) Legislative supremacy in law making
(d) Relation between the legislature and the executive

34. With reference to the ‘Tax Inspectors Without Borders Programme’(TIWB), consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint initiative of the OECD and UNDP to support countries in building tax audit capacity.
2. The TIWB initiative facilitates the transfer of tax audit knowledge and skills to developing country tax administrations using a practical approach.
3. It enables the tax authorities around the world to work together to prosecute the tax law violations by the trans  national entities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

36.In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held Federalism to be a part of the basic structure of the Constitution?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(b) S.R.Bommai v. Union of India
(c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(d) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

37. Consider the following statements with reference to the Innovators
Which of the following is/are rightly matched?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

38. Right to form trade unions in India is a:
(a) Legal right
(b) Natural right
(c) Fundamental right
(d) Constitutional Right

39. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that: (a) certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated (b) fundamental rights cannot be abridged or taken away
Growth Platform(IGP), seen in news recently:
1. The IGP helps investors in start-ups divest their holdings without making a public offer.
2. It is an initiative of SEBI
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

40. Which of the following is/are criticisms of the amendment procedure of the Indian constitution?
1. The process is flexible as well as rigid.
2. The process of amendment is similar to that of a legislative process except for the special majority.
3. Parliament has almost the entire power to initiate amendments.
4. There is no provision for holding a joint sitting to solve deadlock in case of constitutional amendment bill.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

41. What is the objective of ‘UNNATI’ programme, which was launched recently?
(a) Upgradation and modernization of railway infrastructure
(b) Modernisation of classroom infrastructure in government schools
(c) Upgradation of rural roads to connect households with the rural agriculture markets
(d) Capacity building on Nano satellite development

42. Which of the following fundamental rights are conferred under the category ‘Right to freedom’?
1. Protection of life and personal liberty
2. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
3. Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice
4. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

43. With reference to the Kyasanur Forest Disease(KFD), consider the following statements:
1. It is a mosquito -borne viral hemorrhagic fever.
2. It is endemic to the states around Western Ghats.
3. Human to human transmission of Kyasanur Forest Disease is not possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

44.Which of the following changes were made in the Constitution under 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011:
1. Part IX-B was added to the Constitution.
2. A new DPSP on promotion of co operative societies was included. 3. Right to form co-operative societies was made a Fundamental right.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All the above

45. Consider the following statements regarding National Emergency:
1. A proclamation of National Emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part of it.
2. The President can proclaim a National Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Which of the following is/are the objectives of Indian Secularism? 1. One religious community does not dominate another.
2. Some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community.
3. The State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

47. Article 16 provides that no citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment under the State on grounds of:
1. Religion
2. Caste
3. Place of birth
4. Race
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

48. What is ‘Zearalenone’, often mentioned in news?
(a) It is a fungal toxin infesting cereals such as wheat, maize and barley.
(b) It is a microorganism used in the synthesis of organic pesticides
(c) An exotic microorganism that tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it infects.
(d) A type of algal bloom which is found in the tropical river mouths

49.Which of the following is/are included in the basic structure of the constitution?
1. Judicial review.
2. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court.
3. Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution.
4. Free and fair elections.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above

50. Which of the following is/are provisions of the 44th Amendment Act, 1978?
1. Restored the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the high courts in respect of judicial review and issue of writs.
2. Replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ by ‘armed rebellion’ in respect of national emergency.
3. Made the President to declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
4. Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above

51. Consider the following statements regarding the constituent assembly:
1. In 1934 the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy
2. The demand was accepted for the first time in principle on Government of India Act, 1947
3. The constituent Assembly was directly elected by the people of India on the basis of adult franchise
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

52. St. Petersburg declaration of 2010 is related to which of the following?
(a) Limiting the global temperature increase to 1.5 °C above pre industrial levels.
(b) Conservation of snow leopards
(c) Doubling the tiger numbers across the Tiger range countries by 2022.
(d) None of the above

53. Consider the following statements:
1. Goa was conferred statehood by the passage of 12th Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. Odisha was the first state in India to be renamed after the enactment of Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

54.There is a prescribed procedure for the amendment of the provisions of the Indian Constitution. This feature has been borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) Weimar Republic of Germany (b) South Africa
(c) Ireland
(d) Canada

55. Which of the following changes have been brought to constituent assembly through the Government of India Act, 1947?
1. The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any constitution it pleased.
2. The Muslim League members (hailing from the areas included in the Pakistan) withdrew from the Constituent Assembly for India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

56. Which of the following is true about the fundamental rights under Indian Constitution ?
1. It is protected and enforced by the Constitution.
2. It can be changed by the common legislative process.
3. Supreme Court is the guardian of fundamental rights.
4. All Constitutional rights are fundamental rights.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

57. The ‘Yellow Vest movement’ and ‘Red Scarves’ march are recently seen in the news in the context of affairs of,
(a) France
(b) China
(c) Hong Kong
(d) Greece

58. Which of the following writs mentioned in the Constitution is most appropriate to be issued by the Supreme Court when it wants to order a tribunal to transfer any pending case owing to inactivity?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Prohibition
(d) Habeas Corpus

59. The Report “The Future of Rail” is published by which of the following?
(a) International Railway Authority
(b) International Energy Agency
(c) PricewaterhouseCoopers
(d) NITI Ayog

60.Which among the following was the
outcome of Kesavananda Bharati Case v/s State of Kerala Case 1973?
(a) Preamble is part of the constitution and subject to amending power of the Parliament
(b) Preamble is part of the constitution but not subject to amending power of the Parliament
(c) Preamble is not a part of the constitution and is subject to amending power of the Parliament
(d) Preamble is not a Part of the constitution and not subject to amending power of the Parliament

61.Bring out the incorrect statement:
(a) The constitutional amendment bill can only be ratified by the president but not returned
(b) Under powers given by the Constitution , President can withhold his / her assent to an ordinary bill
(c) A High Court Judge addresses his / her resignation to Chief Justice of India
(d) Abolition of Untouchability is included in the Right to Equality

62. Consider the following statements regarding the parliamentary form of government:
1. In a Parliamentary form of government, there are two heads: namely nominal and real.
2. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
3. In a Parliamentary government ministers are drawn from the legislature.
4. Majority party rule.
Which of the above statements is/are the features of parliamentary form of government?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All the above

63. Under which of the following conditions, the President of India declares a Financial Emergency?
(a) If he/she feels that there is a threat to Financial Stability
(b) In order to meet the extraordinary expenses of conducting Government Business
(c) If the Council of Minister gets a report from the CAG and recommends so
(d) If majority of the states recommend so

64. As per the Constitution of India, the name of a state in the Union of India can be altered by:
(a) President of India
(b) Respective state
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs

65. Which among the following is an essential feature of a Unitary Government ?
(a) Written Constitution
(b) Independence of Judiciary
(c) Double Citizenship
(d) None of the above

66. ‘SRPHi’ which was seen in the news recently, is launched by
(a) RBI
(b) NITI Ayog
(c) CIPAM
(d) None of the above

67. Which of the following is/are true regarding a Unitary System of Government ?
1. It is said to be effective in protecting the unity and integrity of the nation.
2. Power is delegated to the local units for administrative convenience only.
3. There is single law making body. 4. The local administrative units do not derive their power from the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All the above

68. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Menstrual Hygiene Scheme’: 1. It ensures the safe disposal of Sanitary Napkins in an environmentally friendly manner. 2. Under the scheme, funds are provided to States/UTs through National Health Mission for decentralized procurement of sanitary napkins packs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Legislative and executive function of the Governor’s Council was separated for the first time in which of the following acts?
(a) Charter Act of 1853
(b) Government of India Act 1858 (c) Indian Councils Act 1861
(d) Charter Act of 1833

70. Consider the following statements regarding the National Investigation Agency (NIA):
1. National Investigation Agency is a central agency established by the Indian Government to combat terror in India.
2. It acts as the Central Counter Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency.
Select the correct statements using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Which of the following given below is/are fundamental rights under the Constitution of India?
1. Right to strike
2. Right to elementary education 3. Right to profess religion
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

72. With reference to the citizenship, consider the following statements: 1. Constitution provides for the elaborate provisions regarding the acquisition and loss of citizenship.
2. A foreign national whether resident or non resident in India
cannot buy immovable property in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. Consider the following statements regarding the enactment of Indian Constitution:
1. All provisions of Indian constitution came into force on January 26, 1950
2. Public suggestions and criticisms were encouraged before the enactment of constitution
Which of the statements mentioned above is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

74.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding directive principles of state policy?
1. They are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. They are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. They are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only.
(c) 1 and 3 only.
(d) 1, 2 and 3.

75.Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

76. Which of the following most appropriately represents the Directive Principles of State Policy envisioned in the Constitution?
(a) A non justiciable part which gives claims to rights for the citizens over the State.
(b) A non justiciable part which mandates State to adopt policies for the citizens.
(c) A non justiciable part which directly empowers the vulnerable sections among the citizens.
(d) A non justiciable part which act as the restrictions of the powers enjoyed by the citizens over the State.

77. Which of the following states launched the ‘One family, One job’ scheme?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Nagaland
(c) Orissa
(d) Sikkim

78. SANKALP and STRIVE scheme is related to which of the following sectors? (a) Development of tourism infrastructure
(b) Skill Development
(c) Preprimary and primary education sectors
(d) Scholarship scheme for single girl child

79. Consider the following about Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP):
1. The Scheme provides central assistance in the form of loan to State Government to speed up the implementation of large irrigation projects.
2. Union Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare is responsible for framing policy guidelines for implementation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

80. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because:
(a) It has values of Indian politics
(b) It contains real objective and philosophy of the Constitution makers.
(c) It is a source of power and limitation
(d) It gives an exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution.

81. Consider the statements regarding the Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK): 1. Rashtriya Mahila Kosh was established by the Government of India in March, 1993 as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Finance
2. The operating model currently followed by RMK is that of a facilitating agency wherein RMK provides loans directly to Self Help Groups (SHGs) of women there by empowering women in the rural area.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

82. Which of the following ways are possible for the acquisition of citizenship?
1. Naturalisation
2. Registration
3. Birth
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 3 only

83. Which of the lists/Articles mentioned below contribute to the principle of separation of power in India?
1. Schedule VII
2. Article 50
3. Parliamentary form of government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 only

84. With reference to the Atal Solar Krishi Pump Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. Centre Government of India launched Atal Solar Krishi Pump
Yojana to reduce losses due to non-payment of electricity bills and also promote solar energy.
2. The scheme provides a subsidy of up to 95% on solar pumpsets.
3. Two LED bulbs, a DC fan and a mobile charging socket will also be provided to the farmers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

85. Which of the following is/are the benefits of E-governance ?
1. It makes government more accountable.
2. It enables participation of people in government affairs.
3. It encourages bureaucratic involvement.
4. It lowers implementation cost of schemes.
5. It helps in building trust between government and citizens.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) All the above

86. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Geographical Indication (GI) tag?
1. GI tags are covered as a component of intellectual property rights (IPRs) under the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property.
2. At the International level, GI is governed by World Trade Organisation’s Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights.
3. It promotes economic prosperity of producers of GI tag goods by enhancing their demand in national and international markets.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

87. Which one of the following most appropriately determines that the Indian Constitution is Federal?
(a) A written and rigid Constitution (b) An independent Judiciary
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre
(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

88. Which of the following is the objective of the SAMADHAAN Portal? (a) To obtain the real time data about the anti-naxalite activities carried out in India.
(b) To empower micro and small entrepreneurs across the country to directly register their cases relating to delayed payments.
(c) To provide grievance redressal mechanism to people who suffered from international bank frauds
(d) To provide on demand support service to people who suffered from natural calamities including floods and droughts.

89. Consider the following statements:
1. Both Central and state governments can legislate on the matters associated with preventive detention.
2. The policy of preventive detention is adopted by India from the British common law.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. Which of the following writs shall be issued when your relative is detained by one of the colleagues for personal reasons and there is no information about him/her?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Quo Warranto
(c) Mandamus
(d) Prohibition

91. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
(a) There is an independent judiciary.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the centre and the state. (c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajyasabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units

92. Consider the following statements regarding Jan Shikshan Sansthan (JSS)
1. Jan Shikshan Sansthans were established to provide vocational  training to non-literate, neo literate, as well as school dropouts.
2. Formerly under the Ministry of Human Resources Development, Jan Shikshan Sansthans were transferred to the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship in 2018.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

93. Consider the following statements regarding Samagra Siksha Abhiyan:
1. It is the first integrated scheme extending unified support to states from preschool to senior secondary levels.
2. The scheme builds on grade-wise, subject-wise Learning Outcomes and largest National Achievement Survey-2017-18 to strategize district level interventions for improving quality of education.
3. It also extends benefits of Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya scheme, under which girls from disadvantaged sections are provided education with hostel facility from class 6-8 to class 6-12.
4. The scheme focuses on strengthening teachers, the crucial pillar of education system by making SCERTs and DIETs nodal agencies for teacher training.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All the above

94. With reference to the martial law, consider the following statements:
1. During operation of martial law, Parliament can delegate its legislative power to such authorities as it may determine where the martial law is in operation.
2. The expression ‘martial law’ is not defined anywhere in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

95. Which of the following statements aptly describes the objectives of Mission Raksha Gyan Shakti?
(a) It is the primary search for the post of Chief of defence staff in India
(b) It aims to provide a boost to the IPR culture in indigenous defence industry.
(c) It is the first ever HADR exercise between India and Bangladesh (d) It aims to protect the traditional  knowledge from being misused by MNCs

96. Which of the following mentioned below is/are reasonable restrictions for freedom of speech and expression under Article 19?
1. Contempt of court
2. Sovereignty and integrity of India 3. Defamation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

97. Which of the following is/are the objectives of National Bamboo Mission: 1. To increase the area under bamboo plantation in non-forest Government and private lands. 2. To rejuvenate the underdeveloped bamboo industry in India.
3. To replace the mangroves from coastal belts with bamboo for better coastal protection.
4. To improve post-harvest management through establishment of innovative primary processing units near the source of production.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

98. Consider the following statements regarding the Regulating Act of 1773: 1. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta. 2. It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’.
3. It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Which of the following countries have initiated Advanced Model Single Window for improving administrative procedures necessary for business operations?
(a) India and US
(b) EU and China
(c) India and Japan
(d) EU and UAE

100. Consider the following statements about the constitution amendment: 1. Certain amendments of constitution requires the support of special majority of Parliament. 2. Certain amendments require ratification by at least two – third of the state legislatures after being passed by a special majority by each house of the parliament. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2